Respuesta :
The answer is (A) which is 32..
If u can f(x) =160 when x=40 and if we divide 160 by 40 we get 4..
Therefore we can say that to get the f(x) we have to multiple the value of x by 4.
. *NB: as the value of x=40, f(x) is: 40×4=160
. * Therefore as the value of x=8, f(x) is: 8×4=32
Answer: Value of f(x)=32 when the value of x=8
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we have given that
the function f(x) varies directly with x and f(x).
If x=40, f(x)=40
So, if x=8 then we have to find the value of f(x):
Since there is direct variation,
[tex]\frac{160}{40}=\frac{f(x)}{8}\\\\4=\frac{f(x)}{8}\\\\4\times 8=f(x)\\\\32=f(x)[/tex]
So, value of f(x)=32 when the value of x=8.