cameronkas cameronkas

26-10-2016
Mathematics

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Explain why the logarithm of 1 for any permissible base is 0

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Аноним Аноним

26-10-2016

The equation

x = log(base b) of y

is equivalent to

y = b^x

So if y = 1, we have

1 = b^x

which implies that x = 0 since b is not 0.

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